Question

I just stumbled upon this question here Why is the clique problem NP-complete? and I am confused by the given answer. The question about about whether $k$-clique is NP-hard for a fixed $k$ and the answer is no. However, we know that clique in general is NP-hard. Also we know that $0 \leq k \leq n$ must hold (for a graph of size $n$).

What is wrong about the following reasoning: Assume I have some algorithm $A_i$ that solves $i$-clique for some fixed $i$ in polynomial time. Now given some general clique problem without a specific $k$ (these problems are supposedly NP-hard), I simply run $A_i$ for $i=1$ to $n$. Now since $n$ is poly and every $A_i$ runs in polynomial time $p_i$, the resulting algorithm also runs in polynomial time $\sum p_i$, but this cannot be the case, since clique is NP-hard.

What is wrong about my reasoning?

No correct solution

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