How is functional property guaranteed in type theory when function type is defined?
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05-11-2019 - |
Question
I understand that functions are not defined in type theory the same way they are defined in set theory, hence functional property is not directly defined when defining function type in type theory. But I want to know which part of function type definition in type theory guarantees functional property even if it is done so indirectly and implicitly?
No correct solution
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