Question

I'm taking a course on programming languages and the answer to "when is a function a sub type of another function" is very counter-intuitive to me.

To clarify: suppose that we have the following type relation:

bool<int<real

Why is the function (real->bool) a subtype of (int->bool)? Shouldn't it be the other way around?

I would expect the criteria for sub typing functions to be: f1 is a subtype of f2 if f2 can take any argument that f1 can take, and f1 returns only values that f2 returns. There clearly are values that f1 can take, but f2 can't.

Was it helpful?

Solution

Here's the rule for function sub-typing:

Argument types must be contra-variant, return types must be co-variant.

Co-variant == preserves the "A is a subtype of B" hierarchy for the type of the results parameter.

Contra-variant == reverses ("goes against") the type hierarchy for the arguments parameter.

So, in your example:

f1:  int  -> bool
f2:  bool -> bool

We can safely conclude that f2 is a subtype of f1. Why? Because (1) looking at just the argument types for both functions, we see that the type hierarchy of "bool is a subtype of int" is in fact co-variant. It preserves the type hierarchy between ints and bools. (2) looking at just the results types for both functions, we see that contra-variance is upheld.

Put another way (the plain English way I think about this subject):

contra-variant arguments: "my caller can pass in more than I require, but that's okay, because I'll use only what I need to use." co-variant return values: "I can return more than the caller requires, but that's okay, he/she will just use what they need, and will ignore the rest"

Let's look at another examples, using structs where everything is an integer:

f1:  {x,y,z} -> {x,y}
f2:  {x,y}   -> {x,y,z}

So here again, we're asserting that f2 is a subtype of f1 (which it is). Looking at the argument types for both functions (and using the < symbol to denote "is a subtype of"), then if f2 < f1, is {x,y,z} < {x,y} ? The answer is yes. {x,y,z} is co-variant with {x,y}. i.e. in defining the struct {x,y,z} we "inherited" from the {x,y} struct, but added a third member, z.

Looking at the return types for both functions, if f2 < f1, then is {x,y} > {x,y,z}? The answer again is yes. (See above logic).

Yet a third way to think about this, is to assume f2 < f1, then try various casting scenarios, and see if everything works. Example (psuedo-code):

   F1 = f1;
   F2 = f2;
   {a,b}   = F1({1,2,3});  // call F1 with a {x,y,z} struct of {1,2,3};  This works.
   {a,b,c} = F2({1,2});    // call F2 with a {x,y} struct of {1,2}.  This also works.

   // Now take F2, but treat it like an F1.  (Which we should be able to do, 
   // right?  Because F2 is a subtype of F1).  Now pass it in the argument type 
   // F1 expects.  Does our assignment still work?  It does.
   {a,b} = ((F1) F2)({1,2,3});

OTHER TIPS

Here's another answer because, while I understood how the function subtype rules made sense, I wanted to work through why any other combination of argument/result subtyping did not.


The subtype rule is:

function subtyping rule

Meaning that if the top subtype conditions are met, then the bottom holds true.

In the function type definition, the function arguments are contravariant, since we've reversed the subtype relation between T1 and S1. The function results are covariant because they preserve the subtype relation between T2 and S2.

With the definition out of the way, why is the rule like this? It's well stated in Aaron Fi's answer, and I also found the definition here (search for the heading "Function Types"):

An alternative view is that it is safe to allow a function of one type S1 → S2 to be used in a context where another type T1 → T2 is expected as long as none of the arguments that may be passed to the function in this context will surprise it (T1 <: S1) and none of the results that it returns will surprise the context (S2 <: T2).

Again, that made sense to me, but I wanted to see why no other combination of typing rules made sense. To do this I looked at a simple higher order function and some example record types.

For all examples below, let:

  1. S1 := {x, y}
  2. T1 := {x, y, z}
  3. T2 := {a}
  4. S2 := {a, b}

Example with contravariant argument types and covariant return types

Let:

  1. f1 have type S1 → S2 ⟹ {x, y} → {a, b}
  2. f2 have type T1 → T2 ⟹ {x, y, z} → {a}

Now assume that type(f1) <: type(f2). We know this from the rule above, but let's pretend we don't and just see why it makes sense.

We run map( f2 : {x, y, z} → {a}, L : [ {x, y, z} ] ) : [ {a} ]

If we replace f2 with f1 we get:

map( f1 : {x, y} → {a, b}, L : [ {x, y, z} ] ) : [ {a, b} ]

This works out fine because:

  1. Whatever the function f1 does with its argument, it can ignore the extra z record field and have no problems.
  2. Whatever the context running map does with the results, it can ignore the extra b record field and have no problems.

Concluding:

{x, y} → {a, b} ⟹ {x, y, z} → {a} ✔

Example with covariant argument types and covariant return types

Let:

  1. f1 have type T1 → S2 ⟹ {x, y, z} → {a, b}
  2. f2 have type S1 → T2 ⟹ {x, y} → {a}

Assume type(f1) <: type(f2)

We run map( f2 : {x, y} → {a}, L : [ {x, y} ] ) : [ {a} ]

If we replace f2 with f1 we get:

map( f1 : {x, y, z} → {a, b}, L : [ {x, y} ] ) : [ {a, b} ]

We can run into a problem here because f1 expects and might operate on the z record field, and such a field is not present in any records in list L. ⚡

Example with contravariant argument types and contravariant return types

Let:

  1. f1 have type S1 → T2 ⟹ {x, y} → {a}
  2. f2 have type T1 → S2 ⟹ {x, y, z} → {a, b}

Assume type(f1) <: type(f2)

We run map( f2 : {x, y, z} → {a, b}, L : [ {x, y, z} ] ) : [ {a, b} ]

If we replace f2 with f1 we get:

map( f1 : {x, y} → {a}, L : [ {x, y, z} ] ) : [ {a} ]

We have no issue with ignoring the z record field when passed into f1, but if the context that calls map expects the a list of records with a b field, we will hit an error. ⚡

Example with covariant argument types and contravariant return

Look at the above examples for the two places this could go wrong.

Conclusion

This is a very long and verbose answer, but I had to jot this stuff down to figure out why other argument and return parameter subtyping was invalid. Since I had it somewhat written down, I figured why not post it here.

The question is answered, but I'd like to present here an easy example (regarding the argument type, which is the unintuitive one).

The below code will fail, because you can pass only Strings to myFuncB, and we are passing numbers and booleans.

typedef FuncTypeA = Object Function(Object obj); // (Object) => Object
typedef FuncTypeB = String Function(String name); // (String) => String

void process(FuncTypeA myFunc) {
   myFunc("Bob").toString(); // Ok.
   myFunc(123).toString(); // Fail.
   myFunc(true).toString(); // Fail.
}

FuncTypeB myFuncB = (String name) => name.toUpperCase();

process(myFuncB);

However, the below code will work, because now you can pass objects of any type to myFuncB, and we only pass Strings.

typedef FuncTypeA = Object Function(String name); // (String) => Object
typedef FuncTypeB = String Function(Object obj); // (Object) => String

void process(FuncTypeA myFuncA) {
   myFunc("Bob").toString(); // Ok.
   myFunc("Alice").toString(); // Ok.
}

FuncTypeB myFuncB = (Object obj) => obj.toString();

process(myFuncB);
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