Question

i have a histogram with the y-axis showing the proportion in percentage. That makes sense to me but now i have read that histograms can be normalized with the result that the area of the rectangles is 1.

Can someone explain me the idea,reason behind this? Many thanks!

Était-ce utile?

La solution

Not all histograms are normalised.

For example, individuals by hair color:

  • Blond 2 (Alex, Beckham)
  • Gray 3 (Foo, Bar, Baz)
  • ...

This histogram is not normalised, because individuals in result set are relevant.

Compare with repairs by car make:

  • Fiat 81%
  • Daewoo 18%
  • Toyota 1%

This histogram is normalised to 100% because individual number of repairs is irrelevant.

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