Constructing hitting sets for randomized algorithms

Question

Suppose A($\cdot$,$\cdot$) is an efficient randomized algorithm and L is a language such that

$\text{If }x \in L, \text{Pr}_r[(A(x,r) = 1)] = 1$ and if $x \notin L, \text{Pr}_r[A(x, r) = 0] \ge \frac{1}{2}$.

Let $H$ be a hitting set such that for all inputs $x$ of length $n$, if $x \notin L$, then $\exists y \in H, A(x, y) = 0$.

We need to show that there exists a hitting set $H$ of size $O(n)$.

My idea is that from the condition $x \notin L, \text{Pr}_r[A(x, r) = 0] \ge \frac{1}{2}$, we can get that $x \notin L, \text{Pr}_r[A(x, r) = 1] < \frac{1}{2}$. Then we can randomly choose $y_1$, $y_2$, ..., $y_m$ to construct a set $S$. Then for any input $x \notin L, \Pi_{i = 1}^{i = m}Pr[A(x, y_i) = 1] < 2^{-m}$. Therefore, the probability that there exists at least one $y_i$ such that $A(x, y_i) = 0$ is $1 - 2^{-m}$. Now the problem is if we need to prove the hitting set $H$ must exist, then $1 - 2^{-m}$ should be 1, which means $m$ should be large enough. However, I cannot find the relationship between $m$ and $n$ and how come if $m$ in size of $O(n)$ would prove such $y_i$ must exist.

Or maybe I am going in the wrong way. Can somebody help me with this? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance.