Are these 2 equivalent?

Question

Is ∀x∀y∀z[φ(x,y)∧p(y,z)->p(x,z)] equivalent to ∀x∀y∀z[φ(x,y)∧p(x,z)->p(y,z)] ?

The only thing I can think of is that this question can be answered if we show that p->q is equals (↔) το q->p, but that's not true because p->q ↔ ¬p->¬q, hence p->q is not equals to q->p. However, I do not know if my logic is correct and if it can be accepted as an answer.

I also think that the (first) ∀x∀y∀z[φ(x,y)∧ part is irrelevant and that i have to focus only to the last part.